Showing posts with label linear analysis. Show all posts
Showing posts with label linear analysis. Show all posts

Sunday, 16 March 2014

Linear Analysis: Baire Category Theorem

The Baire Category Theorem is this year's big surprise for analysts (or it would have been, if Dr. Garling hadn't been so enthusiastic about it in Analysis II). Spanning the rift between topology and analysis like a mathematical bifrost, it allows us to link local properties such as openness to global properties such as denseness.

Dense. A set $A \subset X$ is dense in $X$ if $\overline{A}=X$. Equivalently, $A$ is dense in $X$ if $A \cap N \neq \emptyset$ for any non-empty open set $N$ in $X$.
Nowhere dense. A set $A \subset X$ is nowhere dense in $X$ if $\text{int}(\overline{A})=\emptyset$.
Meagre. A meagre set is a countable union of nowhere dense sets.
1st category. Meagre.
2nd category. Not meagre.
Residual set. The complement of a meagre set. 

Theorem 1.1 (Baire Category Theorem I)

In a complete metric space, the intersection of countably many dense, open subsets is still dense.

Proof: Take a sequence of nested open and closed balls, alternatingly. The centres of the closed balls give a Cauchy subsequence, if you shrink the balls fast enough, so there is a limit in the intersection by completeness. Equivalently, the intersection of a sequence of nested compact sets is non-empty in a complete metric space.  $\square$

Theorem 1.2 (Baire Category Theorem II)

In a non-empty complete metric space $X$, the union of countably many closed, nowhere dense sets does not cover the whole space. Equivalently, if $X$ is the union of countably many closed sets, then one of those closed sets contains an open ball.

Proof: (using 1.1) Suppose $X=\bigcup^\infty F_n$, where the $F_n$ are closed. Set $U_n=X\backslash F_n$, which is open. Then $\bigcap^\infty U_n = \emptyset$, so one of the $U_n$ is not dense, from Theorem 1.1, which implies that one of the $F_n$ contains an open ball. $\square$

Proof of 1.1 assuming 1.2: This is fairly easy, using the observation that the complement of a nowhere dense set is a dense set, and vice-versa. In 1.1 we do not assume that $X$ is empty, so observe that if $X$ does happen to be empty, the intersection of any sequence of sets is dense, and so we are done. Suppose $U_n$ is a sequence of dense, open sets. Then $F_n=X\backslash U_n$ is a sequence of nowhere dense, closed sets. $\bigcap U_n = \bigcap (X\backslash F_n)= X\backslash \bigcup F_n \neq \emptyset$, where inequality follows from 1.2. We have currently only found one point in the intersection of the $U_n$, but this is another one of those cases where we are actually already done with no extra effort. Simply consider the subspace of $X$ given by the restriction of $X$ to any open ball to force the point we found to be where we want it. Thus, the intersection of the $U_n$ is in fact still dense. $\square$


Note that if you have any sequence of sets $F_n$ such that $X=\bigcup^\infty F_n$, you can apply BCT to their closures to conclude that they can't all be nowhere dense, strengthening the above statement slightly.

Remark 1.3. The Baire Category Theorem is equivalent to the Axiom of Dependent Choice.

Applications of the Baire Category Theorem

Result Space  How?
Every complete metric space with no isolated points is uncountable. Any complete space Singleton sets are nowhere dense
There exist continuous nowhere differentiable functions. $C[0,1]$, $\|.\|_\infty$ The set of functions differentiable at some point is meagre.

$Y_n = \{f \mid \exists x \in [0,1], \left|\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}\right| \leq n$, $\forall y \in [0,1]$, $y \neq x\}$
Principle of uniform boundedness Any Banach space. $F_n=\{ x \in X \mid \|Tx\| \leq n, \forall T \in \tau\}$
An infinite-dimensional Banach space has uncountable dimension Any i.d. Banach space $F_n=\text{span}\{e_1,\ldots,e_n\}$
Open Mapping Theorem $X$, $Y$ Banach spaces. $T$ surjective, continuous, linear. $Y=\bigcup^\infty T(nB_x)$
$f(nx) \to 0$ for each $x>0$, then $f(x) \to 0$ $\mathbb{R}$ $F_N=\{x \mid f(nx)\leq \varepsilon$, $\forall n \geq N\}$

Here is some interesting mathematics that we didn't cover in lectures, but which is easily accessible using the notions we have developped. Baire introduced a classification of functions on the real line as a way of measuring how discontinuous they are.

Define the set of Baire class zero functions to be the set of continuous functions. Define the set of Baire class $n$ functions to be the set of functions that are the pointwise limit of a sequence of Baire class $n-1$ functions.

The Baire class $n$ is a vector space[citation needed]. Several of the results that we have encountered (and a couple of extra-curricular, but relevant ones) can be rephrased rather pleasingly in terms of Baire classes, and $G_\delta$ language.

Theorem 1.4 The set of points of discontinuity of a Baire class one function is meagre. (See Ex2Q4+12.)

Theorem 1.5 The set of points of continuity of any function is a $G_\delta$ set. (See Ex2Q11.)

Theorem 1.6 The derivative of a differentiable function is Baire class one.

Culminating in a result which I promised someone on stackexchange I would get around to proving:

Theorem 1.7 The graph of a derivative is connected. (More generally, so is the graph of any function that is simultaneously Baire class one, and Darboux.)


Question: what's an example of a Baire function that is not in any Baire class? Note that some sources extend to the definition of Baire classes to include a countable ordinal in the index. Perhaps the indicator function of a non-measurable set might do the trick?

[I am planning to come back to this post to include proofs of these results, and perhaps add some extra results. Example sheet 2 was a rough time for most of us, but it's incredibly rich - I'm gonna mine it for theorems harder than any Minecrafter ever mined for diamonds.]

Thursday, 13 March 2014

Linear Analysis - Riesz's lemma

In Linear Analysis, during the chapter discussing finite-dimensional normed spaces, we proved Riesz's lemma:

Let $Y$ be a proper, closed subspace of a normed space $X$. Then $\forall \varepsilon > 0$, $\exists x \in X$, $\|x\|=1$, such that $d(x,Y) > 1 - \varepsilon$.

I find the proof very interesting.

In school, we learn Pythagorus' theorem in all of its (potentially tautological) majesty. From that moment onwards, the name Pythagorus is endowed with a reverent, mystical quality that we revere because as small, impressionable children we were taught to. In France, there's another name that is given equal attention that as far as I know is less widespread in the UK - Thales (of Miletus). Apparently, he used the properties of similar triangles to calculate the height of the pyramids (although I've also heard said that this is another instance of misplaced mathematical credit, and he had nothing to do with the pyramids). Anyway, besides Pythagorus, we are patiently force-fed the théorème de Thalès, i.e. that the ratios of the sides of similar triangles are equal (image courtesy of Wiki)

Going through the proof of Riesz's theorem, it strikes me as very similar to this basic theorem of Euclidean geometry.

Proof of Riesz's lemma:
  • We assumed $Y$ proper, so pick $z \in X\backslash Y$. 
  • We assumed $Y$ closed, so $d(z,Y)=\inf\{\|x-y\| \mid y \in Y\} > 0$. By definition of infimum, we can pick $y \in Y$ such that $d(z, y)(1 - \varepsilon) < d(z,Y)$.
  • Set $x = \displaystyle \frac{z-y}{\|z-y\|}$. Thus $\|x\|=1$. This is the point that we are looking for.
  • Write $\lambda =\displaystyle \frac{1}{\|z-y\|}$ for clarity. $d(x,Y)=d(\lambda (z-y), Y) = \inf\{ \| \lambda (z - y) - y^\prime\| \mid y^\prime \in Y\}$. 
  • Using the fact that subspaces are closed under scalar multiplication, $d(x,Y) = \inf \{\lambda \| (z-y) - y^\prime \| \mid y^\prime \in Y \}$.
  • Using the fact that subspaces are closed under vector addition, $d(x,Y) = \inf\{\lambda\| z - y^\prime \| \mid y^\prime \in Y\}$.
  • We conclude that $d(x,Y)=\lambda d(z,Y) > 1 - \varepsilon$, by choice of $y$. $\square$
(Perceived) link with similar triangles

I'm interested in one specific step of the proof: the assertion that for $Y$ a closed vector subspace, $d(\lambda x, Y) = \lambda d(x,Y)$, for $\lambda \in \mathbb{R}$.

 
Look familiar? The above argument with the infimum holds for any subspace. But how analagous is it really? There are a few traps for our intuition here. We haven't assumed that $X$ is a Hilbert space, so we can't assume that the shortest distance from $x$ to $Y$ is along a perpendicular line. That's fine - similar triangles don't have to be right-angled. More subtly, for the shortest distance to be along a line, we're assuming that lines are geodesics in normed spaces. Apparently, they are, but apparently there can be other geodesics too. 

I was sort of hoping we might be able to argue that the similar triangles property holds in this case without using the analytic definition of $d(x,Y)$, but the potential non-uniqueness of geodesics messes that up. There are other complications - recall that there may be multiple closest points in $Y$, since $X$ is not a Hilbert space, and we don't yet have any reason to believe that the closest points to $x$ and $\lambda x$ respectively are colinear in $Y$. Thus it seems that studying this question is out of my reach at the moment (my knowledge of geometry and geodesics is currently rather sketchy).

Normed spaces are sort of paradoxical - it feels to us like they have an extremely nice, rigid structure, yet things can apparently fail in mysterious ways. I certainly catch myself thinking of them intuitively as if they necessarily admitted an inner product (and thus had an orthonormal basis). This section is unfortunately rather inconclusive. 

Important corollary of Riesz's lemma

The unit ball of any infinite dimensional normed space is not compact.

Related problem: Example sheet 1Q12

Show that in the unit ball of every infinite-dimensional normed space, there is a sequence $(x_n)$ with $\|x_n - x_m \| \geq 1$, $\forall n \neq m$. Can $\geq$ be replaced with $>$?


In finite dimensions the unit ball is compact. If Riesz's lemma works for any $\varepsilon > 0$, then it has to work for $\varepsilon = 0$ by compactness. This approach might have been very interesting in infinite-dimensional normed spaces with compact unit balls. However, Riesz's lemma shoots itself in the foot by preventing any such objects from existing. Damn.

 Can $\geq$ be replaced with $>$?

Yes. Our supervisor came up with a proof that doesn't use Hahn-Banach. [more details to come]